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Why is 0/0 undefined?

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-26 1:35

We should be able to define it just like everything in mathematics.

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-26 1:43

it has different values depending on what pattern you follow.  For certain purposes you could define it as an infinite value or as zero or one, but unless you have some reason for picking one of those, it's sort of an undecidable problem.

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-26 10:44

but if we define it, the world will implode..

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-26 10:58 (sage)

>>3
pffft, not even.

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-26 12:00 (sage)

Because it only has a specific value in context. If you try to ask "What is 0/0", the answer could be any number and still be correct. Thus it is undefined.

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-27 10:58

SAME NUMBER/SAME NUMBER=1
0/0=1
MATHS+COMMONSENSE=OBVIOUS

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-27 11:06

0/ANY NUMBER=0
0/0=0
MATHS+COMMONSENSE=OBVIOUS

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-27 15:16

ANY NUMBER/SMALL NUMBER=BIG NUMBER
ANY NUMBER/0=INFINITY
MATHS+COMMONSENSE=OBVIOUS

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-28 6:24

0 apples divided between 0 people means that each person gets -infinite and infinite pieces each at the same time and everything in between

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-28 7:30

x = 0/0 would mean that 0*x=0 which is true for any x, hence 0/0 can have no particular value.

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-29 2:46

>>10
>>8
>>7
>>6
lol, winners

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-29 4:45

>>9 missing slightly on the common sense factor there, I'm afraid

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-30 3:06

If a number is divided by another number, the result is a number which, when multiplied by the divisor, results in the dividend.  Thus, it is natural to assume, that if some amount of apple were to be divided among 0 people, they would all receive the same amount.  Clearly, the amount of apple divided is not relevant, when the number of people is 0.  We can conclude that each non-person will receive the same size non-piece of non-apple, in equal non-proportions.  This non-ness is inconsequential, and explicitly indicates the non-ery of non-onism.  Consider the following:  How many times must 0 apples be cut to receive 3 portions?  Twice!  How many times for 2 portions?  Once!  How many timse for 1 portion? None!  The pattern is simple and provides no reason for extended query.  How many times thus must no apple be divided to receive no portion?  Negative Once!  Or "unonce" if you will.

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-30 6:44

>>10
Not if we make 0/0=1 an axiom.

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-30 7:10

>>14
Except that would lead to contradictions.

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-30 12:09

>>15
Not if we make true = false an axiom.

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-30 12:24

>>15
Contradictions?  In my theorem!?

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-30 18:31

>>10

x = 0/0 -> 0*x = 0 * 0/0 -> 0 = 0 * 0/0

0 = 0*0/0 -> 0/0 = (0*0/0)/0 -> 0/0 = 0/0 * 0/0

0/0 = (0/0)^2

this only happens with 1 and 0

take a pick

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-30 19:11

according to L'Hôpital's rule, a*(x/x), when x is limited to 0 = a

let's say i have money and friends
let's say i want to distribute x money amongst x friends 3 times

this makes something like 3*(x/x) = 3

now let's say i have no money or friends... i just made cash \o\

Name: Anonymous 2006-07-01 0:18

>>18

don't be daft

Name: Anonymous 2006-07-01 10:30

infinite 0s fit into 0

Name: Anonymous 2006-07-01 13:52

3 0s fit into 0

Name: Anonymous 2006-07-01 14:18

>>22
liar

Name: Anonymous 2006-07-01 21:40

Take the integral of 0 u get an arbitary contants, to get these contants u will need the intial values of whateva system ended up as 0/0

now we have A/B

if A == B  --> A/B = 1

if A =/= B then the dirivative d/dx(A/B) = O

Name: Anonymous 2006-07-02 15:43

The problem is you can increase every given fraction to 0/0.
So in 0/0=x, x needs to represent the result of every possbile fraction.
Perhaps you can put it like this: x becomes the complete set of real numbers?

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