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e^(i*pi)

Name: Anonymous 2010-07-27 18:16

It's equal to -1.
Can mathfags explain me why ?

Name: Anonymous 2010-07-27 21:06

Because of the niggers.

Name: Anonymous 2010-07-27 21:58

The easiest proof I'm aware of has to do with Taylor expansions. Through observing the Taylors you can see that e^ix = cosx + isinx, so e^ipi = cos(pi) + isin(pi) = -1 + 0. Just play around with the expansions a little and see for yourself.

Name: Anonymous 2010-07-28 1:40

>>2
^* African Americans

Name: Anonymous 2010-07-28 7:18

mathfags

Don't do that.

The long and short of it is there are some trigonometric identities with complex numbers that cancel out giving you -1.

The one that gives mathematicians an orgasm is e^(i*pi) +1 = 0

e^(i*pi)

1 Name: Anonymous 2010-07-27 18:16

2 Name: Anonymous 2010-07-27 21:06

3 Name: Anonymous 2010-07-27 21:58

4 Name: Anonymous 2010-07-28 1:40

5 Name: Anonymous 2010-07-28 7:18

Name: Anonymous 2010-07-27 18:16

Name: Anonymous 2010-07-27 21:06

Name: Anonymous 2010-07-27 21:58

Name: Anonymous 2010-07-28 1:40

Name: Anonymous 2010-07-28 7:18