Idempotency
Name:
namefag
2009-02-05 20:53
I'm as confused as hell here anon
Show that a function f : A -> A is idempotent if and only if f(x) = x for every element of p(f), the range of f.
Does anyone know what the fuck this means?
Name:
Anonymous
2009-02-05 21:39
Idempotent, in this case, means that f(f(x)) = f(x) for any x.
Assume f is idempotent. Let x be an element of f(A) and let a be such that f(a) = x. Since f is idempotent, f(x) = f(f(a)) = f(a) = x.
The converse is easy.
Name:
Anonymous
2009-02-05 21:48
Seriously thats it? It seems so simple now
Name:
Anonymous
2009-02-05 22:02
Name:
Anonymous
2009-02-05 22:05
>>4
Surjections lasting longer than four hours, though rare, require immediate medical attention.
Name:
Anonymous
2009-02-05 22:22
>>5
That's a quality joke right there.
Name:
Anonymous
2009-02-05 23:33
I dun care who u are, thats funny rite thar.
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