Name: namefag 2009-02-05 20:53
I'm as confused as hell here anon
Show that a function f : A -> A is idempotent if and only if f(x) = x for every element of p(f), the range of f.
Does anyone know what the fuck this means?
Show that a function f : A -> A is idempotent if and only if f(x) = x for every element of p(f), the range of f.
Does anyone know what the fuck this means?