Name: Anonymous 2008-09-10 7:21
I don't know TeX,so please bare with me.
Say we have two functions:
f(x)=x2-2x+1 / x-1
g(x)=x-1
We can reduce the function f(x) to x-1.So,we could say that f(x)=g(x).
One problem-the function f(x) is not defined at x=1,but g(x) is.
Questions:Why can we reduce the function f(x) to x-1,but it is not defined at x=1??
And in general-wtf,/sci/?
Say we have two functions:
f(x)=x2-2x+1 / x-1
g(x)=x-1
We can reduce the function f(x) to x-1.So,we could say that f(x)=g(x).
One problem-the function f(x) is not defined at x=1,but g(x) is.
Questions:Why can we reduce the function f(x) to x-1,but it is not defined at x=1??
And in general-wtf,/sci/?