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IS Pi a finite or infinite number?

Name: Anonymous 2005-11-29 22:29

What do you guys think???

Also when do you think mankind will discover the answer to this most important question?

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-02 17:51

YOU DONT UNDERSTAND >>40
MATH DOESNT MATTER SO WE CAN REDEFINE PI TO WHAT THE FUCK WE FEEL LIKE IN PHYSICS.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-06 22:15

The Alabama state legislature tried to redefine π to be exactly 3, because they thought irrational numbers were "ungodly" and harmful to the chillun'.

ONLY IN THE U.S.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-07 0:13

>>41
Don't be a dumbass, precision is everything in physics. The more precise your experiments are, the closer to reality your theories are.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-07 6:03

>>43
Newton failed his experiments, yet he won his theories

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-07 8:35

However, pi can be expressed as a continued fraction, or an infinitely nested radical.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-07 13:13

>>45

zomg, anything can be expressed as a continued fraction.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-08 2:42

This is such a retarded question.  Pi is a number, that's all there is to it.  A static, normal number.  The only reason one might view it as "continuing" in some way is because of the way we write it.  It's just as "infinite" as the number 5.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-08 3:34

>>47
Not true. Pi has infinite decimals in any base because it's an irrational number and as such it cannot be expressed as an integer or a periodic decimal in any base, lol.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-08 12:15

>>48

Pi = 1 in base Pi lol.

Yes, I know that's wrong.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-08 18:06

>>46


You say that like it is some trivial observation. Care to give a proof that all numbers can be expressed as a continued fraction?

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-08 18:33

>>49
The only possible bases are decimal, binary, hexadecimal and octal

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-08 18:34

>>50

zomg. everything can be written as a simple continued fraction. the continued fraction algorithm guarantees that for rationals you get a finite expansion. for irrationals you get infinite expansion. In the finite case expansions with the last term greater than 1 are unique. in the infinite case any two distinct continued fractions have different values. how do i know this? I am doing my 3rd year uni maths project on simple continued fractions.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-08 23:11

>>51
Then explain how Douglas Adams was able to write jokes in base 13, or the Babylonians to count in base 60. You can have a radix in terms of any integer.
Hence there is no base pi, although if there were π would equal 10.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-09 5:17 (sage)

>>51
GTFO you can arbitrarily choose any base you wish.  Those you mentioned are used more frequently because they are convenient to use.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-09 10:17

>>53
Hence there is no base pi, although if there were π would equal 10.
That you are able to make such an observation should tell you that you can indeed extend the concept of bases to non-integers.

123 in base π would be 1*π^2+2*π^1+3*π^0, or π^2+2π+3. Though you run into problems with selecting allowed digits.

And base φ is kind of interesting: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Golden_ratio_base

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-09 10:58

>>55
You beat me to it.  Indeed, you can use any number as a base, with quite facinating results.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-12 1:22

>>52

"for irrationals you get infinite expansion"

pi = 1 (base pi). There, I wrote an irrational number in finite expansion :]

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-12 1:27

>>57

Sorry, I just realised someone else had already said that back around >>17.. And that it would be 10 base pi... But I argue it is possible to write in base pi

Name: Astantia 2006-05-13 10:49

Base pi could not be rationally used to depict other numbers though, just instances of pi.

Amazingly enough, in most basic mathematics, we use something similar.  Most equations dealing with pi will be written:

1pi, 2pi, pi^2 etc. 

Beyond counting pi, it really has no uses, because the calculation to configure any number into the base would have to utilize a formula with 'pi' in it.

Base Pi... lol.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-16 15:38

"Yeah they do,  as much as negative numbers exist.  I mean shit, just cause you can't find infinity on the earth, just like you can't find negative pie, doesn't mean it doesn't exist.  Do negative numbers exist then?  I guess not..."

*shudders* 4chan is a scary place...

Arts students should stay out of /sci/.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-16 21:35

I know the last digit of pi. It's 3. Proove me wrong.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-16 22:43

>>61

Pi is irrational (see lots of proofs for that). Let there exist some digit dn, such that all digits dk k>n are zero. Write pi as

(d0*10^n+d1*10^(n-1)+...+dn)/10^n = p/q, p and q integers. Pi is rational. Contradiction. Last digit dn does not exist. Last digit is not equal to 3.

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-17 1:00

>>61
>>62
pwned

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