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Set equality

Name: Anonymous 2011-09-07 18:25

Proave A = B by showing A is a subset of B and B is a subset of A using a direct proof.

I have no fucking idea how to do this.

Name: Anonymous 2011-09-07 18:42

You'll have to specify which axiomatic system.
If you're just looking for a naive proof: if A is a subset of B, then A/B=C. If C is empty (∅), then A=B (can be seen as an alternate definition of equality), thus A=B ∪  C. Now you can write B/A=D (again if ∅, it's equal), thus you have B = A ∪  D, now substitute A: B = B ∪  D ∪  C. Now subtract B from them:
B/B = B∪ D∪ C/B => ∅ = D∪ C. Now given the axiom that the empty set is the only subset of itself, we can conclude that D=C=∅, and thus A/B=∅ => A=B.

Name: Anonymous 2011-09-07 18:50

>>1
>>2
bullshit

Name: Anonymous 2011-09-07 21:34

Then you are an idiot, fuck off and never post again.

Name: Anonymous 2011-09-08 2:04

kinda depends on how A and B are defined. Read SICP.

Name: Anonymous 2011-09-08 7:42

Give an injective function that maps all the elements of set A to set B.

Give another injective function that maps all the elements of set B to set A.

You're done.

Name: Anonymous 2011-09-08 8:18

>>6
You just managed to prove they have the same cardinal.

Name: Anonymous 2011-09-08 8:20

>>7
You just managed to ruin his potentially neat troll.

Name: Anonymous 2011-09-08 9:07

>>6,7

If that function is a truth-function with equality properties it is done.

Don't change these.
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