American politics

Ok guys, I got a serious question about the American politics here.
It's about the fact that even if one party would get 49,9% of all the votes in a state, the party with more votes will be given 100% of the votes after counting...(in the case of just 2 parties, otherwise the parties would have a bit less %'s but still the same principle).
Ok so let's say now that party A gets 100% of all the votes in 24 states and just 49,9% of all the votes in the remaining 26 states. Resulting in a win in 26 states for party B. This would result in party B winning right?
So wouldn't this make the entire system totally unfair? I know that this is practically almost impossible, but still there is a small chance...

That's exactly how it works, and in fact your example isn't too far off. Plenty of presidents have been elected even when their opponent got far more votes. Politicians routinely fuck with the voting district lines to ensure that projections show their party getting 55% of the votes in most areas while their opponents get 90% of the votes in a small number of areas.

>>1 & >>2

And what do your hope to achieve by being keyboard warriors?

>>1

If you're talking about presidential elections, this is relatively accurate.

To explain the presidential election system,
The president isn't elected by state or population, but by the "electoral college". Basically, for every senator or representative a state has, the state has 1 vote to use in the election. With 2 senators per state (no more, no less) and at least 1 representative (possibly more), each state has at least 3 votes. If a state has a large population, it will have a larger amount of representatives, giving it more votes as a state.
However, as counter-intuitive as it may be, living in a large and populous state actually results in less representation. This is because everyone gets about the same amount of representation through the house of representatives, but everyone has to share the vote for senators. Basically, the 600,000 people in vermont get 3 votes, but the 26 million texans get 38. Doing the math, vermont has .000005 votes per person, but texas has 0.000001462 votes per person, or about 1/3 the representation.

I think some states do split electoral votes if the other party gets enough of a vote, but not all of them. It's entirely possible/legal for states to do this, but I'm sure that many don't.
The lowest amount of support required to get elected is 22% of the population, through getting a close win in small states like Maryland, Montana, and Delaware while ignoring the larger states completely.

Incidentally, there have been 5 examples of a president being elected without the popular majority, the most recent being George W Bush's first term.

the wikipedia article on the electoral college is extensive, if you want to read it:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electoral_College_(United_States)