Name: Anonymous 2009-11-09 0:57
this has me confused right now. anyone have any tips on how to prove in general that
if f(x) > g(x) \forall x \in T, then
\int_T f\, dx > \int_T g\, dx
it seems obvious that it's true when you plot it and look at it and there's where my trouble is. how can i get past it being "obvious" and prove it?
if f(x) > g(x) \forall x \in T, then
\int_T f\, dx > \int_T g\, dx
it seems obvious that it's true when you plot it and look at it and there's where my trouble is. how can i get past it being "obvious" and prove it?