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how 2 proof
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Anonymous
2009-01-28 10:57
The integral of 1/x from 0 to 1 diverges.
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Anonymous
2009-01-29 0:18
>>5
No, then you should prove that lim x->0+ of ln(x) is -infty. The way to do it, is for each natural number N, give a partition of (0,1] such that, the lower Riemann sums surpass N (Hint: you can use that the sum of 1/n diverges)
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