A proposition...

For all x in R, there exists a sequence a_n in Q such that the limit of a_n as n->+inf = x

This seems trivially false to me just from cardinality arguments (e.g. if you assume it's true then the cardinality of Q being less than the cardinality of R immediately implies that there are two different x in R that must have the same limit in Q), but I'll be damned if I can prove it rigorously.  Is there an easier way?

>>18
Hah, it's obvious to you now you've seen your mistake maybe, I guess it takes a REAL mathematician to spot it in the first place.