>>31
The fact that Zorn's Lemma is true if the Axiom of Choice is true does not follow from Zorn's Lemma itself. I guess they aren't equivalent!
The Riemann hypothesis is true does not follow from "the Riemann zeta function has non-trivial zeros only on the line 0.5 + it" alone, so those two aren't equivalent!
Implication states that, in some formal system, by assuming B we can prove A. In this case, the formal system most apt is the natural numbers, which means we have the Peano axioms. Can you point to the part of my proof of equivalence that can't be shown from the Peano axioms? Hint: The answer is no, and you should kill yourself out of shame.
You're the stupidest person on this board. Your understanding of logic makes RedCream look like Gödel by comparison.