Why is it a 50-50 chance that a baby will be a boy/girl rather than something else, like 55-45, etc.?
Name:
Anonymous2007-11-27 22:39
>>prevailing posts:
It would do you all well to take a STATS101 night class. The final probability of the observed sex is either male or female. And if we arbitrarily define success as male, it can be defined to be binomial. And if you're trying to assign some sort of confidence interval, a population parameter cannot be within the interval X1 and X2 with a probability of anything between 0 or 1, because the OBSERVED value either is or is not a male, meaning it can only take on a probability of 0 or 1.