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Pythagoras' theorem

Name: Anonymous 2007-06-06 23:44 ID:a0GNKvKY

Pythagoras' theorem is a natural consequence of having the typical metric on a plane. However, in his proof, he never mentions what metric he uses - somehow, he must have snuck the metric in. Where does his proof assume the usual metric?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pythagorus's_theorem#Proof_using_similar_triangles

Name: Anonymous 2007-06-07 1:09 ID:ll+i+TM1

>>2

That's common to all metrics [ d(a,c) <= d(a,b) + d(a,c) ]

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