Is it possible to have a number system without the symmetry of equality axiom?
e.g
a=b;
b!=a;
Name:
Anonymous2007-03-19 0:24 ID:ey9eEqTV
>>1
The definition of "equals" ("=") says that the property is 1)symmetric, 2)reflexive, and 3)transitive. Therefore, no, it is not possible to have a equal b but b not equal a.