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AXIOM
1
Name:
Admin
2007-03-05 19:52
ID:Jiiuh0Of
Is it possible to have a number system without the symmetry of equality axiom?
e.g
a=b;
b!=a;
22
Name:
Anonymous
2007-03-18 19:10
ID:RDN1/GA/
>>21
No. It's just how the = sign is defined. It is symmetric.
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