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.99999 repeating = 1

Name: Anonymous 2007-02-18 15:23

x= .999 repeating
10x = 9.999 repeating
10x-x = 9.999 repeating - .999 repeating
9x= 9
x=1

Name: Anonymous 2007-02-26 23:31 ID:Z64rdbNq

'Undefined' and 'can be any number' are two different things. 0^0, for example, is undefined because it has two different values by definition (0^x = 0, x^0 = 1). Infinity isn't a number, so things like infinity/infinity just simply aren't defined, though there isn't much difficulty evaluating 1^infinity - = 1*1*1*1*... = 1.

Name: Anonymous 2007-02-27 0:39 ID:Heaven

Let's just agree that it sucks.

Name: Anonymous 2007-02-27 19:22 ID:qmfK0eh+

1^infinity can = e

Proof:
some number "S" = lim(x->infinity) of (1+1/x)^x
(natural log) lnS = lim(x->infinity) ln(1+1/x)^x
(property of logs) lnS = lim(x->infinity) x*ln(1+1/x)
(x = 1/(1/x))lnS = lim(x->infinity) (ln(1+1/x))/(1/x)
(L'Hopital's rule)lnS = lim(x->infinity)((1/(1+1/x))*(-x^-2))/(-x^-2)
(reduce)lnS = lim(x->infinity)(1/(1+1/x))
(take limit)lnS = 1/(1+1/infinity)= 1/(1+0)=1
(exponentiate both sides) e^lnS = e^1
S = e

Degenerate forms can be many things even if it doesn't appear so. (Note: this does not prove the existence or value of e, it proves that the lim(x->infinity) of (1+1/x)^x = e)

Name: Anonymous 2007-02-28 3:21 ID:dOHNHbmO

>>83
You cannot raise 1 to the power of infinity, because infinity is not a number. Instead, you would ask what is the limit as n->infinity of 1^n. Clearly, 1^n = 1 for any integer n, so
lim(1^n,n->infinity)=lim(1,n->infinity)=1

FOr your response, 83, you never once demonstrated that 1^infinity = e. You seem to be assuming that you can freely interchange (1^infinity) and (1+1/infinity)^infinity, which you clearly cannot. As I discussed above, 1^infinity is simply impossible to calculate because infinity is not a number. Instead, you have to take the limit as x->infinity of 1^x, and I proved at the beginning that lim(1^x,x->infinity)=1.

It's not even a question of "can you do certain steps to get around the math." It's simply that you were wrong in your statement that "1^infinity can = e." It cannot. Ever. Ever. Ever.

Take some real analysis before saying any more. And if you have taken real analysis, either you did not pay attention or your professor sucked.

Name: Anonymous 2007-02-28 6:12 ID:Heaven

>>83
You idiot, "can equal" doesn't make any fucking sense. Equality is unique because it's transitive. It either IS EQUAL or IS NOT EQUAL. Take your "can equal" and shove it up your ass.

Name: Anonymous 2007-02-28 6:28 ID:T4uWJSOO

>>85
Oh what? I only just removed it from that very same place!

Name: Anonymous 2007-02-28 23:53 ID:gBFGW6L4

(direct substitution)lim(x->infinity)(1+1/x)^x = (1+1/infinity)^infinity
=(1+0)^infinity = 1^infinity
Because one (or for that matter any positive constant) over the "biggest number possible" (infinity) yields an infinitesimally small number that at the "point" (or limit) at infinity becomes zero for lim(n->infinity)(1/n). If you don't believe me, try to plug in really large number for the function 1/x. You will not achieve 0 until the "point" (or limit) at infinity. Plug in all the positive numbers you want, it will ALWAYS be a little more than 0 until the "point" (or limit) at infinity. Granted, you can not find this "point" on the real number line but the 1/x function has a horizontal asymptote that is only touched when you "reach" "infinity" (more commonly known as taking the limit as x approaches infinity) (lim(x->infinity)(1/x)) = 0 not something close to 0 but instead equals 0).

And yes it is "can equal" because 1^infinity is not a specific number just in the same manner that the variable "x" "can equal" (have a value equivalent to) 1, 2 or any other real number.

For instance 1^infinity = 169
some number "S" = lim(x->infinity) of (1+ln(169)/x)^x
(natural log) lnS = lim(x->infinity) ln(1+ln(169)/x)^x
(property of logs) lnS = lim(x->infinity) x*ln(1+ln(169)/x)
(x = 1/(1/x))lnS = lim(x->infinity) (ln(1+ln(169)/x))/(1/x)
(L'Hopital's rule)lnS = lim(x->infinity)(-ln(169)/(x^2+x*ln(169)))/(-1/x^2)
(reduce, 1st step)lnS = lim(x->infinity)(x^2*ln(169))/(x^2+x*ln(169))
(reduce, 2nd step)lnS = lim(x->infinity)(x*ln(169)/(x+ln(169))
(add and subtract the same quantity, 3rd step)lnS = lim(x->infinity)(x*2*ln(13)+4*(ln(13))^2-4*(ln(13))^2)/(x+2*ln(13))
(seperate)lnS = lim(x->infinity)((x*2*ln(13)+4*(ln(13))^2)/(x+2*ln(13))-(4*(ln(13)^2)/(x+2*ln(13))
(factor)lnS = lim(x->infinity)(2*ln(13)*(x+2*ln(13))/(x+2*ln(13))-(4*(ln(13)^2)/(x+2*ln(13)))
(reduce, 3rd step)lnS = lim(x->infinity)(2*ln(13)-(4*(ln(13)^2))/(x+2*ln(13)))
(take limit)lnS = 2*ln(13)-4*(ln(13))^2/(infinity+2*ln(13))=2*ln(13)-0=ln(169)
(exponentiate both sides) e^lnS = e^ln(169)
S = 169

As you can see, the degenerate form 1^infinity can be ANYTHING. It's just a little bit harder to do those that aren't common exponents of e.

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-01 2:04 ID:0yudiVxE


some number "S" = lim(x->infinity) of (1+ln(169)/x)^x
(natural log) lnS = lim(x->infinity) ln(1+ln(169)/x)^x

fail

\ln S = \ln \lim_{x \tendsto \inf} (1+\frac{\ln 169}{x})^x

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-01 6:13 ID:N/NM6Clu

actually you CAN use infinitesimals in math, but there are none in the real number set.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infinitesimal

"0.000...1" is just a nonsense number, you can't have anything after an infinite number of decimal places by definition.

Name: FrozenVoid 2007-03-03 11:25 ID:7e26uLEU

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-03 14:41 ID:Heaven

>>90
Yes, you.

Name: FrozenVoid 2007-03-03 15:10 ID:7e26uLEU

>>91
That be useless since i did read it already.I wouldn't point out articles that i didn't read myself.
The article describes how it defines real number by excluding infinitesimals
from the set.Archimedes himself used them http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Archimedes%27s_use_of_infinitesimals
and his disbelief in them helped shape math theory.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infinitesimal s  are part of http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hyperreal_number s which by no means
"non-existant" or absurd.

Name: YouAllAreFuckingDumbasses 2007-03-14 20:57 ID:oukxNTyE

proof:

[9*(sigma from 1 to inf) 10^-x converges to 1].  This may seem like an approx, but it is not.  When an infinite series converges to a number, it IS that exact number.  This concept is used in calculus all the time for finding area under curves.  By saying that 0.999~ is not = 1, you are basically saying that integral calculus is useless (because integration is based on summing up an inf number of rectangles, kind of like the inf series shown above).

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-15 0:50 ID:Heaven

>>93
no yoor not

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-15 1:43 ID:vyqQz5JO

In other words >>93 tried to say:
proof that .999...=1:

.9999=1 QED!!111

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-15 1:51 ID:Heaven

>>95
Stop strawmanning or GTFO

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-15 1:56 ID:vyqQz5JO

>>96
TITS

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-15 2:04 ID:eZwP/6r/

Put .999... on a chart and youll never get to point 1. End.
Algebra II teaches this simple concept.

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-15 2:06 ID:Heaven

>>98
Not a sequence. Go away.

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-15 3:08 ID:Heaven

100 GET!

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-15 19:36 ID:Heaven

>>98
The limit of the sum that produces the decimal expansion that is .999... is 1, and therefore they are one and the same. High school calculus teaches this simple concept, and calc trumps Alg II any day.

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-16 0:34 ID:Heaven

Duh, the limit is 1

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-16 1:06 ID:y11vChto

wow my first 100 topic

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-16 1:11 ID:txTNYO4s

I've ejaculated over this thread four times already. Keep it coming!

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-17 3:48 ID:wGZy7HeG

dude... seriously who gives a shit

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-21 21:29 ID:XwlPrljx

>>105
legions of high school kids who are smart enough to use intuition but too stupid to understand advanced math.

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-21 23:16 ID:j9JhiA7l

loooool

Name: Anonymous 2007-03-28 23:16 ID:FNclIccE

bump for justice

Name: Anonymous 2008-09-08 6:34

back to the top

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