Can someone prove for me that n(n + 1) where n is an arbitrarily chosen integer can be represented as 2k where k is an integer? It was on the board today, and apparently I need to know it, but I was sleeping.
Name:
Anonymous2007-01-28 8:05
um you guys are all morons
if you have two numbers
number and number+1
one of them is even, because the other is odd.
every even number is divisible by two, i.e. its factorisaton is like 2 * (otherstuff)
so 2 * (otherstuff) * (number + 1)
OH LOOK 2 IS IN THE FACTORISATION OF THE PRODUCT OF THE TWO NUMBERS
WEL FUUUUUUUUUUUCK MEEEEEEE THAT WAS DIFFIFUCKLT.