Probability question

If 1 in 100 people wear glasses, then what is the probability that I, who is in a group of 5000 people, wears glasses?

>>33
is just p=n/N
No. This is how you'd calculate p if n were known, which it isn't. Also, you wouldn't even get the p we were given (which is the chance that someone wears glasses in general) but only an approximation of it, based on the composition of the group (which, again, could be anywhere from 0 to 10 people with glasses).