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0.999999... = 1?

Name: Anonymous 2006-05-25 9:53

What the fuck. Why is that true. They got different numbers in them.

Name: Anonymous 2006-06-01 15:58 (sage)

The reason why the 1=2 proof works is because you're dividing by zero during the proof.
As for The "10-.999~"=9, I'd say that it'd equal 9.000~ with a one at the end (of infinity). However, for anything non-purely theoretical, yes, you can round it and make it one.

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